John 2:4

και λέγει αὐτῇ ὁ Ἰησοῦς· τί ἐμοὶ καὶ σοί, γύναι; οὔπω ἥκει ἡ ὥρα μου

And jesus says to her [what to me and to you], woman? My hour is not yet come


 * λέγει - the use of the historical present is very common in New Testament narrative accounts
 * word order is freer in Greek than in English.
 * ὁ Ἰησοῦς - has the article so we know it is the subject
 * αὐτῇ - is in the dative case so we know she is the subject
 * γύναι - is in the vocative case, can be translated "O woman". "Woman" is customary then and not intended to be derogatory. Many translations attempt to soften it - e.g. "dear woman". However some footnotes and commentators note that it is unusual for a son to address his mother in this way. Equivalent to calling her "ma'am". It's a way of putting a distance between the son and the mother.


 * τί ἐμοὶ καὶ σοί - word for word it reads "what to me and to you". We can render it "what is it to you and me?". ἐμοὶ and σοί are dative.
 * This is a Hebrew expression found in several places in the Old Testament and is rendered this way in Greek in the Septuagint.
 * See for example 1 Kings 17:18 where the widow tells Elijah this. KJV translates this as "What have I to do with thee?"
 * See also Judge 11:12, 2 Chron 35:21, 2 Kings 3:13, Hosea 14:8.
 * The footnote of the NET on John 2:4 explains all this in detail. It notes that the senses in the expression in these places could imply a rebuke (the widow certainly rebuked Elijah) or simply disengagement. The footnote states that the early church fathers saw a rebuke in Jesus' words to his mother (plausible) but the footnote thinks this is less likely than simply Jesus expressing disengagement.
 * Various translations render the phrase to signify disengagement as in "what has that to do with me or with you?"